Romans 8:28

Mike Sangrey mike at sojurn.lns.pa.us
Sat Aug 5 15:00:30 EDT 2000



On 08/05/00, ""David McKay" <musicke at ozemail.com.au>" wrote:
> I have been reading some seemingly novel interpretations of Scripture at
> www.jarom.net One of these is that KATA PROQESIN in Romans 8:28 refers to
> the purpose of TOIS AGAPWSIN TON QEON and not to God's purpose, which is the
> sense of all translations of this verse I have ever seen.
> 
> The argument given is that "his" which is supplied in every
> translation I have seen, is not in the Greek.
> 
> How do we know that Paul is referring to God's purpose? Is there a
> hint in the Greek? 

I notice verse 8:27 which has the phrase, TO FRONHMA TOU PNEUMATOS.  According 
to Louw & Nida (L&N), FRONHMA is "the psychological faculty of thoughtful 
planning, often with the implication of being wise and provident - `thoughtful 
planning, way of thinking, outlook.' [26.15]"  Along with that L&N define 
PROQESIN as "that which is planned or purposed in advance - `plan, proposal, 
purpose.' [30.63])

There's a fair amount of semantic cohesion between these two words, so there 
is some prominence of the concept of "planning" happening here.  Maybe the 
following would capture the thought, "...namely those being called according 
to plan."

Frankly, the novel argument seems, please forgive me, rather empty.  What's 
the difference between the purpose (plan) of God's love and He himself 
purposing or planning?  Love doesn't exist in some vacuum!  God is not somehow 
disconnected from it.  Maybe I'm missing the point of it.


-- 
Mike Sangrey
mike at sojurn.lns.pa.us
Landisburg, Pa.
       Every Christian library should have a plaque which states:
              "There is one book which explains all these."





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