1 Cor. 7,1

RobertP rbrtp at friko4.onet.pl
Mon Nov 29 20:25:35 EST 1999

Jonathan Robie wrote:

> At 02:26 AM 11/26/99 +0100, RobertP wrote:
> >
> >How to understand expression from 1 Cor. 7,1 KALON ANTHRWPOU...?
> Is there a textual variant that says KALON ANQRWPOU? My text says KALON
> ANQRWPWi. I think it is easier to understand if you read the entire phrase,
> which I read as follows:
> it is good (for a man (a woman not to touch))

I'm sorry of course ANQRWPWi

> >1. KALON it is neutral gendre and it should be translated as The Good (
> >a good thing) or it is so like in classical poetry where KALON is used
> >in the meanning of adverb KALWS (well). For example I read that Homer
> >uses KALWS very seldom (Il.18,570; Od. 1,155) and KALON in the meanning
> >of KALWS very often.
> I'm not really up on classical Greek, but I think you are right here.
> >2. Why in this sentence there are'nt ESTIN?
> The Greek doesn't really need it, but you can insert it without changing
> the meaning, I think:
> >Couldn't be so that this expressions is only typical for greeks ways of
> >expressions ?
> I'm not sure what you are asking - in English or German, we would expect
> the ESTIN, but in Greek, it is very common for it to be "missing" - it
> isn't really missing as far as the Greek speaker is concerned, but it sure
> seems like it is missing to you and me.

Maby my question was not so clear. In 3 th question I didn't think about ESTIN
but about construction KALON + dative, because I read in one book that this
construction is always used  if one wants to express that something is
salutary, profitable... for somebody. I now that Greeks spoke   in such a
sublimy way, f. ex. in  sentence: It would be better for me to die then to live
( LXX Jon.4,8)) I don't now about constraction KALON + dative in classical
greek? I would like to now some examples.


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