Steven Craig Miller scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Sun Nov 28 22:08:54 EST 1999

To: Michael Sigurd Olszta,

<< Is it possible that the word [EKKLHSIA] is here [at 1 Cor 14:34] being 
used in the same sense as it would have been among the Greeks in their 
senate meetings, i.e., an official, called out assembly of males where 
speaking and decision making is limited to the males? >>

Although it is possible for the word EKKLHSIA to be used in the NT to refer 
to a secular assembly of free men entitled to vote (e.g., Acts 19:39), I 
think it near impossible for Paul to use the term EKKLHSIA generally to 
mean "congregation" and yet in a technical sense meaning "an official 
business session of the church" without giving some hint that he was using 
the term differently.

I belong to a church (ELCA) which ordains women. I personally feel that 
Saint Paul was wrong on this issue. But as to what the Greek text says, I 
think it is clear enough, Saint Paul states that women should be silent at 
Christian services.

On the other hand, Conzelmann (Hermeneia commentary series) suggests that 1 
Corinthians 14:33b-36 is an interpolation, since verses 33a and 37 seem to 
share the same context. And according to NA27, Straatman has suggested a 
smaller interpolation, namely verses 34-35. But there is no textual support 
for either of these suggestions, and (without suggesting that such 
interpolations were impossible) I would be hesitant to expunge a passage 
simply because I didn't like what was said.

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller at www.plantnet.com

"O villain! thou wilt be condemned into everlasting redemption for this" 
(Shakespare, "Much Ado About Nothing", 4.2.60-61).

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