1 Cor. 7,1

Jonathan Robie jwrobie at mindspring.com
Fri Nov 26 07:30:59 EST 1999


At 02:26 AM 11/26/99 +0100, RobertP wrote:
>
>How to understand expression from 1 Cor. 7,1 KALON ANTHRWPOU...?

Is there a textual variant that says KALON ANQRWPOU? My text says KALON 
ANQRWPWi. I think it is easier to understand if you read the entire phrase, 
which I read as follows:

KALON (ANQRWPWi (GUNAIKOS MH hAPESQAI))
it is good (for a man (a woman not to touch))

>1. KALON it is neutral gendre and it should be translated as The Good (
>a good thing) or it is so like in classical poetry where KALON is used
>in the meanning of adverb KALWS (well). For example I read that Homer
>uses KALWS very seldom (Il.18,570; Od. 1,155) and KALON in the meanning
>of KALWS very often.

I'm not really up on classical Greek, but I think you are right here.

>2. Why in this sentence there are'nt ESTIN?

The Greek doesn't really need it, but you can insert it without changing 
the meaning, I think:

KALON ESTIN (ANQRWPWi (GUNAIKOS MH hAPESQAI))

>Couldn't be so that this expressions is only typical for greeks ways of
>expressions ?

I'm not sure what you are asking - in English or German, we would expect 
the ESTIN, but in Greek, it is very common for it to be "missing" - it 
isn't really missing as far as the Greek speaker is concerned, but it sure 
seems like it is missing to you and me.

Jonathan
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Jonathan 
Robie 
jwrobie at mindspring.com

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