John 10:28

David A Bielby dbielby at juno.com
Sun Nov 7 01:49:22 EST 1999


Thanks!  So in the context of John 10:28, which meaning would you prefer
and why would you prefer that meaning?


On Fri, 05 Nov 1999 17:29:42 -0500 Jim West <jwest at Highland.Net> writes:
> At 08:43 AM 11/5/99 -0600, you wrote:
> >OU MH APOLWNTAI from John 10:28 question:
> >
> >What is the meaning of APOLWNTAI in this sentence? Do you have any
> >etymological information or syntax comments on OU MH APOLWNTAI 
> which may
> >impact this verse? Any help here would be appreciated.
> 
> Its an old verb and is used by Homer for "to destroy or kill" and it 
> is also
> used in the NT and some papyri to mean "to lose or suffer from 
> loss", to
> perish", "to be lost".  Robertson calls it an emphatic double 
> negative (and
> he is right).  The verb is  a second aorist subjunctive.
> 
> Is this what you wanted?
> 
> >
> >Thanks.
> >
> >David Bielby
> >Vineyard Christian Fellowship
> >Bloomington/Normal, Illinois  USA 
> >dbielby at juno.com        www.bloomington.vineyard.org
> >Phone: 309-827-8292
> >
> >---
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> >
> ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
> 
> Jim West, ThD
> jwest at highland.net
> http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
> 

David Bielby
Vineyard Christian Fellowship
Bloomington/Normal, Illinois  USA 
dbielby at juno.com        www.bloomington.vineyard.org
Phone: 309-827-8292



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