Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Fri Jul 30 09:20:47 EDT 1999

At 8:47 AM -0400 7/30/99, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>I am not sure that I have grasped the aspect of PEIRASQEIS in combination
>with the perfect verb PEPONQEN, and I am not sure what the force of
>PEIRASMOS is in this context. PEPONQEN is pretty clear here, but does
>PEIRASQEIS mean "having been tempted" in this context, e.g. "he has
>suffered, having been tempted"? I assume that the event time of PEIRASQEIS
>is the same as that of PEPONQEN, so that the suffering and testing occured
>at the same time, that the perfect focuses on the resulting state, and that
>PEIRASQEIS focuses on the time of the testing itself? Is the function of
>the phrase to bring out both the state of having been tested and the time
>of testing/temptation, saying that both knowing what it is to be tested and
>having made it through are reasons that Jesus can help those of us who are

I would rather say that PEIRASQEIS is of time prior to PEPONQEN, because
PEPONQEN must refer to the present--as present perfect, it indicates the
fait accompli as of now of his suffering. I'd make it: "since he has
himself been tempted/tested in that wherein he has suffered/is the/an
accomplished sufferer." As for the meaning of PEIRASQEIS here, I'll leave
that to Jeffrey Gibson.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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