N & RJ Hanscamp nar.hanscamp at clear.net.nz
Mon Jul 12 06:13:06 EDT 1999

Ed Craig wrote
>It is certainly not hendiadys: the point in 3:5 is that there were Jewish
>baptisms abroad--both Temple-sanctioned and renegade baptisms at the
>edge--which could not convey the Spirit. John the Baptist admits as much:
>1:26 and 1:33. Jesus fulfills and transcends Jewish cultic practice: that's
>one of the keys to understanding John's Christology.

Are you saying that "water" in this passage signifies a Jewish baptism of
some sort?  If so, is Jesus saying that a person needs to be baptised by one
of these AND the Spirit?


Nigel and Rebecca Hanscamp
Trinity Methodist Theological College
Auckland Consortium of Theological Education, New Zealand
Email: nar.hanscamp at clear.net.nz

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