George Blaisdell maqhth at
Sun Jan 31 15:07:46 EST 1999

>From: "One of the McKays" <music at>

>...but in Rev 13:6


>And he opened his mouth in blasphemy against God
>is a good translation. "To God" would not be good English, nor would 
>it convey that the speaker was doing the opposite from the disciples 
>in the great prayer in Acts 4:24

David ~

You are [imho] correct in this understanding, and my question then 

Why not the more literal translation? ~ Such as:

'And he opens the mouth of him into blashphemy toward [the] God.', or, 
cleaned up into better English style: 'He opens [or 'opened' if you 
prefer the historical aorist translation] his mouth into blashphemy 
toward God.'

I suppose that equally correct might be the translation "And he uttered 
blashphemy against God," where "uttered" would translate HNOIXEN TO 
STOMA AUTOU, but does it honor the Greek?  SHOULD English even TRY to 
honor the Greek way of expression?  

I would like to think so, but it doesn't seem to be a common trait among 
translators, who seem to like to convey the English sense of the Greek, 
but avoid the 'Greek way' of thought expression, if such is a valid 

I guess that my hope is that a GNT translation might serve as a course 
in itself in the Greek way of thought expression, using English words. 
Perhaps my hope is not realistic, and learning the Greek is the only way 
to do so. 

So I share these wonderings...  In wonder and awe.

Your thoughts?


George Blaisdell
Roslyn, WA

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