Rick H Duggin
rduggin at juno.com
Mon Jan 25 12:06:21 EST 1999
To the Corinthians (XII) First Clement writes concerning
the spies of Joshua the son of Nun --
EKPEMFQENTWN GAR UPO IHSOU TOU TOU NAUH
KATASKOPWN EIS THN IERICW...
Lightfoot (pg.47) says in the LXX. Nu.32:13, Dt.32:44, Josh.6:6,
etc., he is called IHSOUS O TOU NAUH, and the same
expression is adopted here, though in the genitive it sounds
But none of the references in LXX have TOU TOU.
It is not unusual for the N.T. to have double articles, but
in different cases. E.g., Mk.3:18, IAKWBON TON TOU
ALFAIOU, but I have never encountered TOU TOU before.
Could someone explain Clement's reason for using
the genitive article twice? I'm probably overlooking
something quite simple. Though I have some theories
on the matter, none of them seem adequate. Thanks
in advance for your help.
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