Perry L. Stepp plstepp at
Sat Jan 9 20:35:57 EST 1999

>At 05:30 PM 1/9/99 -0500, Ross Durham wrote:
>>In her article on 1 Cor 11.2-16, Gundry-Volf comments on  verses 3 and 4
>>that there is obviously a very close relationship between the two verses
>>because verse 4 is asyndetic.  However she does not provide any footnotes
>>for that assertion.  From a grammatical and/or discourse analysis
>>perspective, what does asyndeton indicate as far as the relationship
>>two verses?  What resources or references are there for this besides

I see what Gundry-Volf is saying, but I'm not sure what it is she concludes
re. the force of the asyndeton.

But this *is* a good passage for observing the phenomenon.  Look at the
beginnings of verses 5-8, and you'll see connective particles that show a
rhetorical flow (5 DE, 6 GAR, 7 MEN GAR, 8 GAR)--step one, then step two,
then step three (or "X is true, so Y is true, and Z follows also.")

There is no connective between the sentences that comprise verses 3-4--and
no, not all sentences in the GNT correspond to the verses so neatly as in
this passage.  Is Gundry-Volf arguing that v. 4 should be treated as a
parenthetic insertion, or what?  I've never really seen a study of Paul's
use of asyndeton.  Without a knowledge of his use of such rhetorical
devices, we can't really comment much on any syntactical argument
Gundry-Volf might be mustering.


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