Ross Durham rossdurham at
Sat Jan 9 17:30:24 EST 1999

In her article on 1 Cor 11.2-16, Gundry-Volf comments on  verses 3 and 4
that there is obviously a very close relationship between the two verses
because verse 4 is asyndetic.  However she does not provide any footnotes
for that assertion.  From a grammatical and/or discourse analysis
perspective, what does asyndeton indicate as far as the relationship between
two verses?  What resources or references are there for this besides


Ross Durham

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