a BAGD/TDNT question

Jeffrey B. Gibson jgibson000 at mailhost.chi.ameritech.net
Tue Jan 5 15:44:39 EST 1999


I have the vague feeling that I've asked this before (but I don't recall
receiving an answer), so apologies in advance if I'm being repetitious.
And aplogies, too, that I am once more plowing the overly well turned
filed of my concern with PEIRASMOS.

In the Bauer Ardt Gingrich Danker NT Lexicon article on peirasmos *and*
in Seesemann's discussion in Kittel's TDNT of peiraw and cognates, the
_Syntipas_ (in which peirasmos occurs on p. 124 in the edition of
Jernstedt and Nikiton) is catorgorized as Hellinistic, or at least
something from which NT period usage of words can be illustrated. But
from what I gather elsewhere _the Syntipas_ is a (late) Byzantine work.
Can anyone explain to me how this contradiction is to be accounted for?
What would lead the compilers of BAGD and Seesemann to claim that in
_the Syntipas_ we find an Hellinistic instance of the noun peirasmos?

Yours,

Jeffrey Gibson
-- 
Jeffrey B. Gibson
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626
e-mail jgibson000 at ameritech.net



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