1 Cor. 14.28 "To himself and to God?"

Tom Belt virginia at destination.com.lb
Tue Jan 5 12:39:25 EST 1999


I got a lot of help a few weeks ago on 1 Cor. 14.14. Thanks especially to
Kevin Woodruff. The Perseus site was great and turned up the info I needed.
It was not AKARPOS!

I am still in 1 Cor. 14. Regarding the speaker on an uninterpreted tongue,
Paul says in v. 28, EAUTW DE LALEITW KAI TW QEW ("Let him speak to himself
and to God"). I'd like to explore EAUTW...LALEITW. I had no luck with the
Perseus site. BibleWorks turned up 27 verses in which EAUTW occurs, none of
which really help because I need occurences of EAUTW followed by a verb "to
speak" (of which v. 28 is the only NT example). I don't have TLG (Thesaurus
Lingua Graecae) available in Beirut to search either.

"Speaking to one's self" is strange in any language. My specific question:
Is this a dative of advantage? If so, are we to understand "Let him speak
with/by himself", i.e., "for his personal benefit" and thus "privately"? It
has been suggested that the idiom "to speak to one's self" is normal Greek
for "with/by one's self." Or are we to understand the speaker himself to be
the object of the verb, "Let him address his tongue to himself" in which
case this would be the only verse describing tongues as language addressed
"to men." In every other instance tongues is the language of prayer and
praise. I don't want to get off into a theological discussion in B-Greek,
but I thought it would help explain what it is I'm looking for. EAUTW
LALEITW does bare on the question.

How would I go about looking for extra-biblical examples of EAUTW followed
by a verb to speak?

Tom Belt
Evangelical Assemblies of God of Lebanon
virginia at destination.com.lb

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