forms of hEIS
jmacleod at csi.com
Tue Oct 27 15:28:36 EST 1998
I am a newbie to biblical greek. I was wondering why the neutered form of
'one' (hEN) is used in the first two verses (John 10:30& 17:22), while the
masculine form, hEIS, is used in the example given from John 6:70.
I was reading a commentary which stated the neutered form is used because it
is not a complete oneness (ie not a oneness of essence but a oneness of
persons) Is this a valid statement, or is the commentator imposing his own
views on this? Any insight into the use of hEIS is welcome. Thank you.
John 10:30 I and my Father are one.
John 17:22 And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they
may be one, even as we are one:
John 6:70 Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of
you is a devil?
More information about the B-Greek