forms of hEIS

Jamie Macleod jmacleod at
Tue Oct 27 15:28:36 EST 1998

I am a newbie to biblical greek.   I was wondering why the neutered form of
'one' (hEN) is used in the first two verses (John 10:30& 17:22), while the
masculine form, hEIS, is used in the example given from John 6:70.

I was reading a commentary which stated the neutered form is used because it
is not a complete oneness (ie not a oneness of essence but a oneness of
persons)  Is this a valid statement, or is the commentator imposing his own
views on this?  Any insight into the use of  hEIS is welcome.  Thank you.

John 10:30  I and my Father are one.
John 17:22  And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they
may be one, even as we are one:
John  6:70  Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of
you is a devil?

Jamie Macleod

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