re; Mk 2:23

Jim West jwest at Highland.Net
Mon Jun 15 12:28:48 EDT 1998

On the unique structure of Mark 2:23, Moulton also notes that this may be
caused by the influence of latin. He further notes that "they (latin
influences)tend to occur in the particularly Roman parts of the Gospel" (vol
4, p. 29).  On the phrase we have been discussing in particular, he says
""make a way" may be <latin> inter facio </latin>, but it may well be a
Hebraism <heb> 'asah derek </heb> which seems more likely in view of the
considerable Hebraic evidence above".

For my own part, I take the unusual construction as a semitism.

I am particularly intrigued by the notion that Mark may contain "Roman
parts".  What does M. mean by this?  That certain parts of the Gospel may
evidence a Roman provenance?  Or that some parts may have been composed in
latin and translated into Greek? (an idea I have never run across before).



Jim West, ThD
Pastor, Petros Baptist Church
Adjunct Professor of Bible,
Quartz Hill School of Theology

jwest at

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