Lk 7:37

Braulio Barillas parakal at
Tue Jun 9 00:46:11 EDT 1998

At 18:14 8/06/98 -0400, you wrote:
>Lk 7:37 contains an interesting adjective, hamartwlos.  This adjective
>modifies gunh.  Now, according to Moulton, this particular adjective can,
>indeed, take a masculine (looking?) form.  What is puzzling is why.
>Brugmann thinks that a few adjectives were originally nouns.  In any event,
>Moulton goes on to say that this usage is in accord with the sole or
>predominant usage in earlier Greek.
>Does this mean that the adjective 'hamartwlos', originally referred only to
>males, and that as time progressed it was also applied to females?  This
>seems to be the implication which Rengstorf offers in TDNT when he says that
>the word "denotes intelectual inferiority and failure, e.g., by reason of
>deficient education" (because only males were educated?).  R. takes the word
>in Lk 7:37 as a substantive.  But this does still not explain the formation
>of the case ending.
>Jim West, ThD
>Adjunct Professor of Bible

Dear Jim:

Perhaps say that many adjetives have only two terminations, OS for masc. and
fem. and ON for neuter. Examples:
ENDOXOS and ENDOXON: illustrious
APHTHARTOS and APHTHARTON: incorruptible
AIWNIOS and AIWNION: everlasting
AIWNIAN: acc. sing. fem occurs only in 2Thes. 2:16 and Heb. 9:12



Braulio Barillas
parakal at

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