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  • From: CoH61PA AT aol.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: 1st Thesolonians 2:14-16
  • Date: Sun, 17 Nov 2002 22:39:11 EST


Hello all.
I was wondering where the weight of scholarly opinion was on this passage.
Some like Burton Mack have called it an obvious interlopation. Others like
Raymond Brown think Paul could have talked so negatively of the Jews.

What do most Pauline scholars feel?

Thanks,
Mike Burkhimer




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