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corpus-paul - Re: The purpose of the law in salvation-history

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  • From: Loren Rosson <rossoiii AT yahoo.com>
  • To: Corpus-paul <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: The purpose of the law in salvation-history
  • Date: Sat, 1 Sep 2001 02:54:59 -0700 (PDT)


Robert wrote:

> In the Galatians passage [3:19-22]
> God seems to have given Torah more as an act of
> mercy, because of sin.

Really? Gal. 3:19-22 seems to imply no such thing, and
even in 3:23-25, casting the law as a pedagogue is
hardly flattering (though it admittedly, implicitly,
shifts the responsibility of transgression from the
divine will to human failure).

> But in Romans [11:32]
> Paul's struggling with the Jews' overall
> rejection of the Jesus
> movement, and attributes the problem directly to
> God. Are there any Jewish
> antecedents for this? What's the precise meaning of
> SUNEKLEISEN here?

"Confine" probably works best.

> It's difficult to see how scripture
> can 'imprison' or 'shut up' anyone under sin,
> as in Galatians 3:22, if the word has
> its apparent meaning.

I agree that it is an affront to common sense, not to
mention moral decency. And I'm sure Paul was pained by
his own logic. This is what led to the subtle shifts
in thought found in Gal. 3:23-25, Rom. 7:7-13, and
Rom. 7:14-25.

Loren Rosson III
Nashua NH
rossoiii AT yahoo.com

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