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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: 2 Cor 6.14-7.1/1 Cor 7
  • Date: Tue, 25 Apr 2000 22:38:56 -0500


Dear Doug,
I apologize for the typo concerning the prohibition in 2 Cor 7:14.
You're right that marriage is not mentioned in the context of 2 Corinthians
7, but the principles in 2 Cor 7:14-18 are of wide application. In the OT
marriage was one of the areas where this problem of mixing with the ungodly
world was the greatest. That fact should automatically prompt us to think
of it when considering the application of the principles in 2 Cor 7:14-16,
especially given that the quotations in 2 Cor 6:16-18 are from the OT.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard

>> Dear Doug,
>> The prohibition in 1 Cor 7:14 is a simple prohibition.
>
>I guess you mean 2 Cor 7.14? Boy, this coul db efun if I had time. It
>has been a
>long time since I discussed the M&D questions!
>
>> It would
>> include the idea of stopping unions with unbelievers already in progress,
>> but a marriage was a special case, God honors the marriage vow that two
>> people made. The coming to faith of one partner should not nullify those
>> vows; what God puts together, let not man separate (Matt 19:6). But 2 Cor
>> 7:14-16 surely does apply to marriage. God does not want us to go into
>> marriage with an unbeliever, for just the reasons given in 2 Cor 6:14-16.
>
>Harold, I will stand by my first statements. I used to think this way.
>BUT, the big
>issue is that marriage is *no place* mentioned in the texts, immediate or
>surrounding,
>or even surrounding chapters. I am talking of the text of 2Cor 6. It
>just is not
>there, as much as some would like for it to be.
>
>> If 2 Cor 6:17 calls for separation for from worldly or ungodly people,
>> why would a believer contract a marriage with one? Doing that is asking for
>> conflict. That is what I was taught in church, and that is what I have seen
>> in life.
>> You are not convinced that 1 Cor 7:39 is advice for a widow only to
>> marry in the Lord:
>
>No, I did not say this. I said I am not convinced that the phrase "only
>in the Lord"
>means to "marry only a Christian." Why not the same prohibition for a
>widower? Why
>not the same for a single, etc.? It does not make sense that it would be
>only for a
>widow.
>
>> I have seen your opinion in commentaries; John Gill is an example below.
>
>I have not seen this before. The view I hold is my own. :-)
>
>I wish I had more time to devote to this, but I don't.
>
>Doug
>
>Douglas Jantz
>1304 E. Republic Rd. #180 Springfield, Missouri 65804
>USA
>dwjantz AT swbell.net
>Religious Studies Program
>Southwest Missouri State University
>
>
>
>---
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