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  • From: "Mark D. Nanos" <nanos AT gvi.net>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Paul as apostate (was Paul obligated to Torah?)
  • Date: Mon, 31 Jan 2000 22:18:07 -0600



You wrote:
3:23 Now before faith came, we were confined under the law, kept under
restraint until faith should be revealed. 3:24 So that the law was our
custodian until Christ came, that we might be justified by faith. 3:25 But
now that faith has come, we are no longer under a custodian; 3:26 for in
Christ Jesus you are all sons of God, through faith.

You suggest that the above verses mean or imply that
>In the awaited time Israel will no longer be burdened with the
> problem of proselyte conversion, BECAUSE the Gentiles can be
sons of God through faith in Christ.

In this interpretation of v. 23-26, I take "we" = the Jews, and "you" = the
Gentiles. I read Gal 3-4 once more, and it seems that it is quite important
not to lump "we" and "you" together, except when the context strongly
implies
that "we" = the whole humanity (both Jews and Gentiles) as in 3:14. Is it
agreeable?

Dear Moon,
Succinctly and well put.

Mark Nanos
Kansas City





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