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  • From: "Mark D. Nanos" <nanos AT gvi.net>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Comments on the Mystery of Romans by Mark Nanos
  • Date: Mon, 26 Jul 1999 20:58:47 -0500



>[Moon]
>> >Rom 10:5-6
>> >
>> >Though you did not say it explicitly (as far as I read your book),
>> >your overall logic would not contrast the "righteousness from the law"
>> >and the "righteousness from faith" in these verses.
>> >You would interpret "the man who does these things will live in them" to
>> >mean that the Law was and is the legitimate mode of life and the guide to
>> >Christ. But then, how do you handle the contrast implied in the
>> >two contrasting expressions? Do you say that the righteousness from
>> >the law is nothing but the righteousness from faith? If so, on what
>> >grounds?
>>
>> I do not follow. But I would point to 10:12. When Paul speaks of the fact
>> that because of faith in Christ there is no distinction between Jew and
>> gentile, he draws upon a distinction that still exists in order to make the
>> point. In other words, his point is that while the distinction remains, the
>> discrimination within the community of Christ-believers does not. This cuts
>> both ways. Jewish people in this community should accept gentiles as equals
>> in status, as righteous ones apart from becoming Israelites. So too ,the
>> logic should run, gentiles should accept Jewish people as righteous ones
>> apart from becoming non-Israelites, that is, as Torah-observant people.
>> Practicing righteousness based upon Law and faith in Christ is possible for
>> Israelites, but not required or, because the age to come has dawned,
>> permitted for non-Israelites; that is Paul's point, I think.
>
>[Moon]
>This is really a surprising interpretation of Rom 10:4- 10:6.
>Let me see if I understand it correctly.
>
>Ro 10:3 For they being ignorant of God's righteousness,
>and going about to establish their own righteousness,
>have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.
>10:4 For Christ [is] the end of the law for righteousness
>to every one that believeth.
>Ro 10:5 For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law,
>That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.
>Ro 10:6 But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise,
>Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven?
>
>..
>Rom 10:8 But what saith it? The word is nigh thee,
>[even] in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith,
>which we preach;
>
>Rom 10:11 For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be
>ashamed.
>Rom 10:12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek.
>
>
>What you wrote above suggests the following interpretation of these
>verses.
>Christ is the goal of the law for righteousness to EVERY ONE that
>believes,
>regardless of whether they are Law-people or not. (Rom 10:4)
>(Implied statement: The non-Law people (Gentiles) do not need to become
>Law-people
>but only to have faith in Christ, in order to be righteoused)
>Though the scripture requires that those doing the Law live in it (10:5),
>doing the righteousness from the Law, it is specific to the Law-people,
>but does not apply to the Gentiles. What applies to the Gentiles (and the
>Jew as well)
>is the righteousness from faith (in Christ) (10:6).
>Rom 10:5 can be considered a clause subordinate to Rom 10:6 in meaning,
>though 10:4 is conjunctive to 10:6 syntactically.
>The reason why the righteousness is from faith is that there is no
>difference between the Jew and the Greek (10:12)
>
>What do you thin of this interpretation of Rom 10:5? This is my attempt to
>fit
>the paragraph to your conclusion. Did you take it differently to reach
>your
>conclusion?
>

Dear Moon,

We are, as they say, on the same page.

Regards,
Mark Nanos






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