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  • From: VanEpps <ixthus AT az.com>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Subj Genitive/ Gal 2:16
  • Date: Wed, 14 Jul 1999 10:36:27 -0700


Dear C-P,

I had originally submitted this question to the b-greek lists and was
urged by Mr. Gibson to offer the question to all of you. I would
appreciate any thoughts people have not only on the grammatical
question, but also how they see this pericope (Gal 2:15-21) functioning
within the whole of the letter: as H.D. Betz suggests, Propositio, as a
continuation to Paul's speach to Peter, ect. I sall thankyou all in
advance.

original message:

I too am working in a similar area and would like to get the opinion
of some big-greeks concerning their thoughts on the subjective genetive.
More specifically I am working through Gal 2:15-21 and have decided to
translate v. 16b DIA PISTEWS IHSOU XRISTOU as "through the
faith[fulness] of Jesus Christ." I have found evidence for this
translation in D. Wallace's, Beyond the Basics, and in R. Longenecker's,
WBC of Galatians. My own thought tells me to translate as a subj.
genitive because of the similar construction of EK ERGWN NOMOU; "by the
works of the law" also in v. 16. Also the fact that in v. 20 Paul uses
this somewhat odd construction: EN PISTEI ZW THi TOU hUIOU TOU QEOU; "by
faith in the son of God." Here we have the instrumental dative EN, and
instead of the genitive this time Paul uses the dative article THi. Why
is this? and does this help strengthen the argument for the other uses
as functioning as subjective genitives?

**********************************************
Cameron P. VanEpps MA student, Trinty Western U.
2610 Erie St. email: ixthus AT az.com
Bellingham, WA 98226 voice: (360) 715-8873




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