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  • From: Mark Spitsbergen <awakesd AT mac.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Spelling changes in the BHS
  • Date: Sat, 5 Jan 2008 12:30:12 -0800

I have a question regarding spelling changes of: Mash to Meshech, Shalach to Salah, Obal to Ebal in Genesis 10:23-28 and 1 Chronicles 1:17-22. When we consider that Arpachshad is not Semitic and potentially more Assyrian to begin with (Knoppers 2004; Gunkel 1926; Westermann 1984; Blenkinshopp 1992:90) would this be a clue to an adaptation of the truly Semitic spellings to more of an Aramaic one in the time of Ezra?

Thanks

Mark Spitsbergen
From leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il Sat Jan 5 16:16:59 2008
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Date: Sat, 05 Jan 2008 23:16:58 +0200
From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Spelling changes in the BHS
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Dear Mark,

Shelah/Shalah of Gen. 10:24 and 1 Chr. 1:18 is spelled exactly the same in Hebrew of both books, including the shift from segol (e) to qamatz (a). The other two names are clearly cases of simple scibal error: I would guess that the spelling "Meshech" in 1 Chr. 1:17 in stead of "Mash" in Gen. 10:23 was influenced by the better-known Meshech that appears in verse 2/5 of the same chapter (in both books). The change from "Obal" to "Ebal" is simply because the Waw in Gen. was written as a graphically similar Yod in 1 Chr. (or maybe in the source used by 1 Chr.).

In any case, there is nothing more "truly Semitic" in the Gen. spellings or "more Aramaic" in the Chr. spellings, besides which of course Aramaic is just as "Semitic" a language as Hebrew.


Hope that helps,

Yigal Levin

----- Original Message ----- From: "Mark Spitsbergen" <awakesd AT mac.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, January 05, 2008 10:30 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Spelling changes in the BHS


I have a question regarding spelling changes of: Mash to Meshech,
Shalach to Salah, Obal to Ebal in Genesis 10:23-28 and 1 Chronicles
1:17-22. When we consider that Arpachshad is not Semitic and
potentially more Assyrian to begin with (Knoppers 2004; Gunkel 1926;
Westermann 1984; Blenkinshopp 1992:90) would this be a clue to an
adaptation of the truly Semitic spellings to more of an Aramaic one
in the time of Ezra?

Thanks

Mark Spitsbergen
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  • [b-hebrew] Spelling changes in the BHS, Mark Spitsbergen, 01/05/2008

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