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  • From: David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Prophetic or apocalyptic past
  • Date: Mon, 26 Mar 2007 08:34:22 +1000

Exactly Peter.

Data such as this is discussed in the following article:

Anderson, Lloyd B. 1982. “The ‘Perfect’ as a Universal and as a Language-Specific Category.” Pages 227-264 in Tense-Aspect: Between Semantics and Pragmatics: Containing the Contributions to a Symposium on Tense and Aspect, Held at UCLA, May 1979. Edited by Paul J. Hopper. Typological Studies in Language 1. Amsterdam/Philadelphia: John Benjamins.

However, Rolf does not cite this reference in his dissertation, despite his extensive discussion of English aspect.

The title of the book I find quite interesting -- Tense-Aspect: Between Semantics and Pragmatics -- giving Rolf's insistence on maintaining a scrupulous distinction between semantics and pragmatics (as defined by him)!

Regards,
David Kummerow.

On 25/03/2007 09:04, Rolf Furuli wrote:
...
> In English, the perfective
> and imperfective aspects (represented by the participle and perfect,
> respectively) are mutually exclusive. ...

I have been reading this post for some time now and I have not been
understanding why you have not been recognising the existence in English
of a verb form which is both perfect and uses the participle. OK, these
examples are not entirely natural, but this "have been ...ing" verb form
is a recognised one in English which contradicts your statement.

[snip]


--
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter at qaya.org
Blog: http://www.qaya.org/blog/
Website: http://www.qaya.org




  • Re: [b-hebrew] Prophetic or apocalyptic past, David Kummerow, 03/25/2007

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