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  • From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Also asking a question - Re: YHWH is Aramaic?
  • Date: Thu, 29 Jun 2006 09:50:42 -0500

Dear Shoshanna,

Why can't both be true? G-d gave a Name to Himself from the beginning, and communicated it to mankind, and inherent in the Name is a certain idea of Himself.


HH: Our understanding is that "Yahweh" has a meaning like "He is/will be." Some give it a causative idea. Anyway, it is an odd name as something one calls oneself. But as a teaching tool and as a way for human beings to refer to God, it seems great. So perhaps it appears artificial to think that God in eternity called himself "He is." Also, the name seems to be Hebrew name. So you would have to suppose that God naturally thinks in Hebrew in eternity, or that he translated some other name into Hebrew. I mean, of course these things are possible, but they just seem less likely to me than that he contrived this name to communicate to us.


Also, can you remind me why Ehyeh asher Ehyeh is translated as I AM and not in future? Every Jewish Commentary, when expounding on it, makes the assumption that we all know that the word is used as future tense.


HH: I think the best reason is that the name seems more natural as a present tense verb later in the verse where it is used as a name. Here is the NRSV:

Ex. 3:14 God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.” He said further, “Thus you shall say to the Israelites, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’”

HH: A name like "I will be" seems odd because it is only future. What about the present? Isn't God anything now? A name like "I am" is always suitable in any situation where God is needed.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard








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