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  • From: Rochelle Altman <willaa AT netvision.net.il>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] shwa, shtayim and sharp taw
  • Date: Fri, 10 Mar 2006 23:45:50 +0200

Herman,

There is a vowel, sort of....

Shin, sin, zayin, and tzadek re what used to be called "sibilants" (because they "hissed.") Sibilants are continuants. They also were called "semi-vocales" by Latin grammarians because they do not need to be followed by a vowel. They carry a "vowel" of their own. This is as true for Hebrew as it was for Latin and still is for English (and other IE and Semitic languages).

The schwa is a "place-marker" for the slight continuant "vowel" attached to the sibilant.The schwa will be beard more clearly depending upon the following consonant. (Note the "sl" in "slight" -- don't need a vowel after the 's'.)

Look at the consonant that follows the shin::

The shin in "shtaim" is followed by a dental stop -- 't'; in "shnayim" the shin is followed by a palatal nasal -- 'n'. (the nasals -- m and n -- are also among the semi-vocales.)

The effect is the same as in English "stare" and "snare." Listen carefully; we can hear the very slight "schwa" after the 's' in "snare" more clearly than after the 's' followed by the stop in "stare.". This is because the stop cuts off the flow of air -- while the nasal does not.

So, it's not surprising that the schwa in "sht" will be absolutely silent while the schwa in "shn" will be given some vocal value -- it does suggest that folks had very sensitive hearing back then.. It also suggests that words were carefully articulated.


It seems a little awkward if shtayim would be the only exception - why
would the first shwa in shnayim be a vowel, and in shtayim be the
absence of a vowel?
I think that as the two forms are perfectly analogous, the shwa that
comes with the shin in both words shtayim and shnayim are completely
silent and have never represented a vowel. This fits other Semitic
languages, too.

back to lurking,

Rochelle





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