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  • From: "B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] midwives
  • Date: Sun, 30 Oct 2005 16:44:01 -0500

Shalom,

Thanks Yigal and Rivka for your answers. I hope you and others will answer again.

The Hebrew in question is _lamyalldot ha`ibriyyot_. If we only vocal ize the lamed with shewa instead of patakh, the expression becomes a construct chain translatable as "the midwives of the Hebrews."

A couple things recommend the shewa reading. It seems strange to me to think that Pharaoh would request Hebrew midwives to kill Hebrew children. In fact, Rivka asks why use Egyptians midwives with Hebrew children. Answer: to achieve Pharaoh's genocidal aim.

I also note the expression in v. 21 vayy`as ['elohiym] lahem batiym. The event of v. 21 seems hardly worthy of note unless God made a place for Egyptian women as befitting noble Gentiles.

I repect the Jewish tradition that these two midwives were Yoxebed and Miryam, the LXX that translate "Hebrew midwives," and the standard translations that also seem to agree that they were Hebrews.

Thanks again, Bryan


Yigal Levin wrote:
The simplest meaning of "hamiyaledot ha(ibriyyot" is "the Henrew midwives". I'd need a good reason from the contexts to render "the midwives for the Hebrews".

Yigal


B-Haverim,

What do you all think of the possibility that the midwives of Exo 1:15
were Egyptians rather that Hebrews?

Thanks,
Bryan

--
B. M. Rocine
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13026
(W): 315.437.6744




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