just a quick interjection here, and not taking sides since it is hard to
follow. But it was said that Karl pronounces vav as a 'w'. Well I read a
long time ago that the yemenite jews were considered to have a purer
pronounciation than the western jews, this was written by an israeli,
unfortunately I really can not remember where I read this. Anyway they
pronounced all their vavs as 'w' and also they made distinctions between a
soft 'gimmel and a hard gimmel (like the english gerrard for example) and
also a they made distinctions between a hard tav and a soft tav (almost
like the 'th' in there). Now this probably has no bearing on the present
discussion, but I thought perhaps it note worthy of interest. Especially
since I do remember very clearly that odd statement by the Jewish linguist
who wrote the article saying that he considered this to be a 'purer'
pronounciation. I thought that maybe he knew something that would have been
interesting to learn, but he never talked about why he thought that, pity.
Chris Watts
Ireland
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