Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Ex 6:6 hiphil imperative 'bring' (K Randolph)
Date: Tue, 16 Jul 2013 10:57:26 +0100
just a quick interjection here, and not taking sides since it is hard
to follow. But it was said that Karl pronounces vav as a 'w'. Well
I read a long time ago that the yemenite jews were considered to have
a purer pronounciation than the western jews, this was written by an
israeli, unfortunately I really can not remember where I read this.
Anyway they pronounced all their vavs as 'w' and also they made
distinctions between a soft 'gimmel and a hard gimmel (like the
english gerrard for example) and also a they made distinctions
between a hard tav and a soft tav (almost like the 'th' in there).
Now this probably has no bearing on the present discussion, but I
thought perhaps it note worthy of interest. Especially since I do
remember very clearly that odd statement by the Jewish linguist who
wrote the article saying that he considered this to be a 'purer'
pronounciation. I thought that maybe he knew something that would
have been interesting to learn, but he never talked about why he
thought that, pity.