Karl, you misunderstood Noam's question. He asked why this word is written with a samekh in modern Hebrew, instead of the sin that is used in the Bible. In a previous post I confirmed that the spelling is Mishnaic, and listed several other examples in which biblical sin is replaced by samekh in Mishnaic Hebrew, and added that the modern spelling of these words usually follows the Mishnaic form, but that the biblical form is also considered correct. Yigal Levin From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of K Randolph Noam: On Sat, Dec 8, 2012 at 6:09 PM, Zalman Romanoff <flintflintflintflint AT gmail.com> wrote: In this week's Torah Portion, בראשית פרק מ verse 11 appears the word: וָאֶשְׂחַט First of all, it’s a Sin instead of a Shin, there’s no Samekh there. Secondly, the phrase “blood of grapes” is found, e.g. Genesis 49:11, so it’s not a stretch to consider a metaphorical “slaughter of grapes” to make wine.
Karl W. Randolph. |
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