In this week's Torah Portion, בראשית פרק מ verse 11 appears the word: וָאֶשְׂחַט
I checked a concordance - this verb appears nowhere else in the
tanakh. What is the source of the modern usage of the verb with a
samekh instead of with a sin as in this verse? Is it mishnaic?
Thanks
Noam Eitan,
Brooklyn, NY
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