Has anybody read the article "The General/Gnomic Usage of Hebrew
Morphologies in the Book of Isaiah."
by ANDREW BOWLING, Graduate Institute of Applied Linguistic in
GIALens. (2007)?
I am not sure if I understand him correctly, but he seems to imply
that the qtl and yqtl forms of the Hebrew verb has less of a time
meaning than I always understood. Is it possible that they could
indicate relative time (i.e. yqtl happens after qtl, but not
necessarily in the future when seen from the present)? I must confess
that I have not read all the examples in the Hebrew yet, so I don't
know whether he considers the waw consecutive.
Any comments?
Regards
Chavoux Luyt
Re: [b-hebrew] Article by Andrew Bowling,
Chavoux Luyt, 01/24/2011