I don't know what Rolf means by "perfective" and "imperfective" if he
is using different meanings than what is found in the grammar of such
as Russian, but that verse is neither perfective nor imperfective as
the terms are used in Indo-European languages. If you insist on the
Indo-European definitions, then you have set up a false dilemma
logical fallacy.
Back up your so far unsupported statements.
Karl W. Randolph.
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