Yitzhak,
Sorry that I miss understood your post, and assumed you meant something
that you didn't.
Everyone,
For some reason the answers that have been posted are not addressing my
question. So clearly I am not being understood. So I will try to ask my
question again, but in a different way.
Does the absence/presence of the dagesh MARK alone change the
form/aspect/state/meaning/translation/etc of the word? I am NOT
concerned with the effects it has on the pronunciation of the word!
I repeat my question has NOTHING to do with pronunciation - but rather
the relationship between the dagesh MARK and its lone effect on the
meaning of a word.
If there are other GRAPHIC changes to the word along with the dagesh
MARK change (such as a vowel MARK change) - then it does NOT apply to my
question - as this is an additional graphic change to the word.
For example:
<H:A/$OM"R> - Interrogative / Qal Participle Masculine Singular
<HA/$.OM"R> - Article / Qal Participle Masculine Singular
In this example the GRAPHIC presence/absence of the dagesh has no effect at all on the meaning of the word - as both words are Qal Participle Masculine Singular.
Are there any instances in the Biblical text where the addition/subtraction of the dagesh MARK change the meaning of the word.
Another way to ask it:
If I were to remove all the dagesh MARKS from the Biblical text, will
their absence in anyway hinder/reduce my ability to translate the text?
Or does the dagesh MARKS contain data vital to the translation of a word?
Thanks in advance.
B"H
John Steven
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.