John,
Does the presence/absence of a dagesh (any type of dagesh - this evenincludes the mapiq) alone effect a change of any kind (excluding the obvious change in pronunciation)?
Let's see...
The word בְּרַיְתָא ; Yemenite tradition: בַּרַּיְתָּא (resh & tav with dagesh). The word עִקָּר ; Yemenite tradition: עִיקָר (kof without dagesh).
The word עָרֵב ; Yemenite tradition: עַרָּב (resh with dagesh and kamats).
Judges 15:3, the word נִקֵּיתִי וַיֹּאמֶר לָהֶם שִׁמְשׁוֹן נִקֵּיתִי הַפַּעַם מִפְּלִשְׁתִּים
Babylonian Masorah: the word נִקֵּיתִי is without dagesh.
Genesis 29:6 & 29:9: וְהִנֵּה רָחֵל בִּתּוֹ בָּאָה עִם-הַצֹּאן
עוֹדֶנּוּ מְדַבֵּר עִמָּם וְרָחֵל בָּאָה
The word באה is identical in both past and present tense. Which one is the present, or past tense?
Now remove the dagesh: Which one is the present,
or past tense?
Best,
David Hamuel
Type Designer Biblical Hebrew, Grammar & Cantillation Expert
Los Angeles, CA — USA
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