From leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il Sat Jan 5 16:16:59 2008Return-Path: <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
I have a question regarding spelling changes of: Mash to Meshech,
Shalach to Salah, Obal to Ebal in Genesis 10:23-28 and 1 Chronicles
1:17-22. When we consider that Arpachshad is not Semitic and
potentially more Assyrian to begin with (Knoppers 2004; Gunkel 1926;
Westermann 1984; Blenkinshopp 1992:90) would this be a clue to an
adaptation of the truly Semitic spellings to more of an Aramaic one
in the time of Ezra?
Thanks
Mark Spitsbergen
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