It is certainly possibly for English words to begin with the sound "sr." I just listened to the American Heritage Dictionary pronunciation of Sri Lanka, and it does not use an "h." It is not hard to say "sree."I am having difficulty accepting this theory of shewa. How do you
account for the fact that ancient Greek and Latin transliterations of
Hebrew names often render the shewa as a full vowel?
If we are to go by the LXX, we have to throw out a lot of the
Masoretic grammar.
Still, the most commonly cited example of a vocal shewa is S'DOM,
which becomes SODOM in the LXX. It's a bad example, beause SD--- is
an impossible start to a Greek word. (We see similarly issues in the
American pronunciation of "Sri Lanka." Almost everyone says
"Shree..." because Enlglish words cannot start with the sounds SR---.)
This shows us how nuanced the evidence can be.
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