It's hard to tell the actual sequence of events, especially from the language of verse 3. Why
would he first rape her, and then fall in love with her and ask his father to arrange the
wedding? It looks as though the LXX translators had the same question and assumed he
did his tenderness thing before he violated her, which would explain why they used
PARQENOS to render NA(AR.
In any case, I suspect Karl is right: what we have here is nothing more than a case of poor
translation. It certainly doesn't make your case.
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