On Jul 16, 2007, at 1:25 AM, dwashbur AT nyx.net wrote:
How does Gen 34:3 suggest any lack of physical virginity? Are you
basing this idea on the
fact that PARQENOS in that verse translates NA(AR in Hebrew? I
have no idea what your
point is from this verse, or how it "shows" anything.
Dave Washburn
But I can't say Sylvester, George!
It's very simple. If the word PARQENOS meant only physical virginity
to Alexandrian Jewish translators then Dinah was still a physical
virgin even after being raped according to the Greek translation of
Gen. xxxiv 3. Now I suppose its possible the translators may have
felt that Dinah remained pure and that by some miracle her hymen was
not broken; but it is painfully obvious that the usage of PARQENOS
among Jews in the 3rd century BCE could not have been limited to
women who never had intercourse. One simply has to keep this in mind
when reading the Greek version of Isa. vii 14.
Tory Thorpe
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