The term "mi pesha ami nega lamo" in Isaiah 53:8 is usually translated as:
"from the transgressions of my people, a plague befell them (lamo)." The
"them" is usually understood to be the servant i.e. Israel. However, I've
seen a few people suggest that this refers to the Gentiles or nation rather
than the servant.
Grammatically speaking how plausible is this rendition over the conventional
one? Does the servant as the object of lamo come from the context of Isaiah
53 (verses 53:4, 53:10 describing his illness) or is it inferred based on the
syntax of the verse alone?
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>From kwrandolph AT gmail.com Thu Jun 28 12:03:18 2007
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Object of "lamo" in Isaiah 53
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