You would agree I assume that the Hebrew definite article always indicates the definite per Hebrew. An English translation of the indefinite would be the exception. If it's unlear what the related English should be than it probably should be translated as definite. Only providing a general exception to the definite translation does not force an indefinite translation for English where you think it might aply to a specific passage. You need to demonstrate WHY the translation should be indefinite in English.HH: I would apply it to Isa 7:14 because there is no specific person in view. There were many virgins, so unless the context indicates a particular one, it seems best to translate the Hebrew as an indefinite. The context does not indicate any specific virgin, and one is not really needed. The woman could be a nameless person in Israel known to the Lord but not to the king and his court. The prophecy about the virgin particularly signals the time when the northern coalition will be defeated (Isa 7:14-16):
"The article may also mark nouns definite in the imagination, designating either a particular person or thing necessarily understood to be present or vividly portraying someone or something whose identity is not otherwise indicated"
How do you apply this than to 7:14?
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