Isaac,
(1) I do not think it "redundant" to mention the binyan of a specific
form. However, no one mentioned it at all. The question was entirely
other.
(2) The question was about the form, which is MASCULINE!
with להשביע? Should it not employ a lamed-prefix for the indirectAdditionally... Is it normal to use a direct object like this
object? I don't know what's standard in BH.
Regards,
Jason
On 5/31/07, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:
B-Hebrew LISTIM,_______________________________________________
HI$BA(TANU consists of the root SB(, 'swear', and the three attached
personal pronouns HI, AT, ANU for the contextually obvious actors.
Every Hebrew word is but a root plus personal pronouns. Using the
term 'hiphil' is a redundancy.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On May 30, 2007, at 1:04 PM, Jason Hare wrote:
Dear B-Hebrew,
Last night I read a couple of chapters of Joshua for leisure, and
there are a couple of things that I noticed that I wanted to ask
about:
(1) Although $BW(H /shevu'ah/ [שבועה] is feminine, it is
modified with
the masculine ZH /zeh/ [זה] in 2:17:
נְקִיִּם אֲנַחְנוּ מִשְּׁבֻעָתֵךְ
הַזֶּה אֲשֶׁר הִשְׁבַּעְתָּנוּ
NQYM )NXNW M$B(TK HZH )$R H$B(TNW
Come to think of it, why is H$B(TNW masculine, when it is talking
about Rahab?
(2) Is there any reason why the NIV footnote says that the word ZWNH
/zonah/ [זונה] can be translated as "innkeeper"?
Thanks,
Jason
Joplin, MO > Ra'anana (Israel)
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