with להשביע? Should it not employ a lamed-prefix for the indirectAdditionally... Is it normal to use a direct object like this
B-Hebrew LISTIM,
HI$BA(TANU consists of the root SB(, 'swear', and the three attached
personal pronouns HI, AT, ANU for the contextually obvious actors.
Every Hebrew word is but a root plus personal pronouns. Using the
term 'hiphil' is a redundancy.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On May 30, 2007, at 1:04 PM, Jason Hare wrote:
> Dear B-Hebrew,
>
> Last night I read a couple of chapters of Joshua for leisure, and
> there are a couple of things that I noticed that I wanted to ask
> about:
>
> (1) Although $BW(H /shevu'ah/ [שבועה] is feminine, it is
> modified with
> the masculine ZH /zeh/ [זה] in 2:17:
>
> נְקִיִּם אֲנַחְנוּ מִשְּׁבֻעָתֵךְ
> הַזֶּה אֲשֶׁר הִשְׁבַּעְתָּנוּ
> NQYM )NXNW M$B(TK HZH )$R H$B(TNW
>
> Come to think of it, why is H$B(TNW masculine, when it is talking
> about Rahab?
>
> (2) Is there any reason why the NIV footnote says that the word ZWNH
> /zonah/ [זונה] can be translated as "innkeeper"?
>
> Thanks,
> Jason
> Joplin, MO > Ra'anana (Israel)
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