Hi Rolf,
I do not think that it follows that "we cannot draw the conclusion that
the Hebrew WAYYIQTOL is a past tense or is perfective on the basis of
its function." To me it only shows that the issue is complex in
Phoenician regarding the infinitive and less so for Hebrew wayyiqtol.
The conclusion you draw doesn't necessary have to follow. So I disagree:
I think we can label Hebrew wayyiqtol on the basis of its
dominant/prototypical function - narrative past tense. Regarding the
Phoenician infinitive absolute, what is its dominant function? If it is
indeed used dominantly as a past tense, then the possibility is there
for the grammaticalisation of it as Peter suggested. Also, since the
infinitive is unmarked for PNG, then it could possibly be used in
narrative as a topic-continuity construction. You see, there are other
alternatives than the outright rejection of more traditional proposals.
Regards,
David Kummerow.
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.