The article I refer to includes a translation of 40 lines of the Phoenician
Karatepe inscription. In these lines there are 4 QATALs, 2 WEQATALs, and 21
infinitive absolutes (16 with prefixed WAW) that carry the narrative
forwards. No one would argue that the infinitive absolute is a
grammaticalized preterit or is perfective. Yet, these forms function exactly
as the WAYYIQTOLs in Hebrew. This shows that we cannot draw the conclusion
that the Hebrew WAYYIQTOL is a past tense or is perfective on the basis of
its function.
I teach Ugaritic this semester and use much time one that language,
including the preparation of an article on Ugaritic verbs. Anyone interested
in Hebrew verbs will gain much from reading one of the three long Ugaritic
texts, particularly the saga of Kirta (Keret). Here we find the same
situation with the same clauses and same verbs, first with future reference
(it shall happen) and then with past reference (it happened). When we have
the same verbs in the same conjugations (prefix-forms and suffix-forms) both
with future and past reference, it is extremely difficult to defend the view
that they represent tenses, and it is equally difficult to argue that they
represent aspect (in your definition of the word). However, an aspectual
explanation on the basis of the relationship between event time and
reference time can solve everything.
Regarding the article I'm chasing, it was one you said you'd written on
Phonecian I think, maybe on the infinitive?