Since there is not one single biblical Hebrew, given its evolution with someDavid, thank you for asking. In this particular case I used "biblical Hebrew" in a very specific sense relating to Karl's position, which I thought was clear from the context. Karl's position seems to be that the Torah was written down by Moses in a form almost identical to the consonantal Masoretic text; he has now clarified that he accepts that there may have been copying errors and minor orthographic corrections. At this point I am using "biblical Hebrew" to refer to the hypothesised unchanging language of this unchanging text. This unchangeability of course relates only to the consonantal text, and not to the vocalisation, sin/shin distinctions etc, which on Karl's hypothesis came later.
overlapping and the introduction of Aramaic, pre- and-post-exile, I would very much
appreciate being edified as to what is meant by "biblical Hebrew" here. I
presume it is not being limited to one period and therefore is not limited to one stage
of its development.
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