This is exactly what my theory predicts. Simple rules based on Aramaic
So I suppose you could argue that Hebrew speakers used sin where there
was an Aramaic cognate with sin, but shin where there was a cognate with
shin or no direct cognate. But this doesn't explain Hebrew words like
(&H "make", which has no known Aramaic cognate: why sin and not shin here?
--
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter AT qaya.org
Blog: http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/
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