See the discussion for the various people's reasonings. I'm not sure what it
is that you
want. Again, if you don't find their arguments convincing, that's your right
as a free human
being. But you seem to be fishing for something, and it's difficult to
determine what.
On 29 Jun 2006 at 16:23, Awohili AT aol.com wrote:
> In a message dated 06/29/2006 10:58:21 A.M. Pacific Daylight Time,
> dwashbur AT nyx.net writes:
>
> I don't know that anybody said it's not "acceptable," most have just said
> it's preferrable to
> translate it as present tense.
> ****************
>
> That just begs the question. Why is it any more "preferable" to translate
> ehyeh as "I Am" at Exodus 3:14 than at Exodus 3:12, where KJV, NIV, NRSV,
> NASB, NAB and others render it as "I will be"? It's the same word, and
> the
> context hasn't changed.
>
> Obviously, many translators find it "preferable" to render ehyeh as "I
> will
> be" at Exodus 3:12. Yet, two verses later, it's "I Am."
>
> I see nothing convincing here.
>
> Solomon Landers
>
>
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>
Dave Washburn
Encephaloriasis: That condition generated when the person you are dealing
with is so
incredibly stupid, you can actually feel your own brain cells drying up and
flaking off.