In a message dated 06/29/2006 10:58:21 A.M. Pacific Daylight Time,
dwashbur AT nyx.net writes:
I don't know that anybody said it's not "acceptable," most have just said
it's preferrable to
translate it as present tense.
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That just begs the question. Why is it any more "preferable" to translate
ehyeh as "I Am" at Exodus 3:14 than at Exodus 3:12, where KJV, NIV, NRSV,
NASB, NAB and others render it as "I will be"? It's the same word, and the
context hasn't changed.
Obviously, many translators find it "preferable" to render ehyeh as "I will
be" at Exodus 3:12. Yet, two verses later, it's "I Am."