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Oun, I must say I wondered for a moment if there was some contradiction
between this verse and 2 Corinthians 3:13. Perhaps the KJV rendering is
an attempt, perhaps unconscious, to harmonise Exodus with the New
Testament verse, which at first seems to imply that Moses veiled his
face when speaking to the Israelites, not afterwards. But a closer look
at 2 Corinthians 3:13 in context makes it clear that the Israelites had
the chance to see Moses' face unveiled but they could not fix their eyes
on it (ATENISAI, v.7), also that what the veil hid was not in fact the
Moses' shining face, but literally "the end of what was being
destroyed". It is not quite clear to me what this means, but certainly
one possibility is a reference to the fading away of the glory. Thus 2
Corinthians agrees with Exodus, that Moses displayed his shining face
for a while, but then covered it up - perhaps because he knew that the
glory would fade away and didn't want others to see this happening.
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